Đề thi Tốt nghiệp THPT môn Tiếng Anh - Phần 4 - Trương Văn Ánh

Nội dung text: Đề thi Tốt nghiệp THPT môn Tiếng Anh - Phần 4 - Trương Văn Ánh

1. Đề thi Tốt nghiệp THPT 4 Trương Văn Ánh Trường Đại học Sài Gòn
2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose bold part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. learned B. booked C. mapped D. picnicked Question 2: A. bought B. fought C. plough D. thought
3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. salamander B. sanatorium C. sanitarium D. saturation Question 4. A. refugee B. decisive C. catastrophe D. committee
4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: Children should be ___ by their parents on the first day of school. A. accompanied B. followed C. involved D. associated Question 6: People have used coal and oil to ___ electricity for a long time. A. cultivate B. breed C. raise D. generate Question 7: About 20 percent of U.S electricity currently ___ nuclear power plants. A. come from B. coming to C. comes from D. came from
5. Question 8: The salary of a computer programmer is ___ a teacher. A. as twice much as B. as much as twice of C. twice as higher as that D. twice as high as that of Question 9: Tony didn’t study hard for the test. His answers ___ from someone else A. should have copiedB. must have been copied C. can have copied D. would have copied Question 10: No one had informed me about that. I resented___ A. not to be informed B. not having been informed C. not to inform D. not informing
6. Question 11: __ in UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in 2003, Phong Nha Ke Bang is noted for its cave and grotto systems. A. Listing B. Having listed C. To have listed D. Having been listed Question 12: It’s Gangnam Style___ makes many people, especially youths, become overexcited. A. which B. it C. that D. what Question 13: In the early years of the 20th century, several rebellions ___ in the northern parts of the country. A. rose up B. turned out C. came up D. broke out
7. Question 14: - Do you like pop music or jazz? - I don’t like ___of them. I prefer classical music. A. any B. both C. either D. neither Question 15: By 1820, there were over sixty steamboats on the Mississippi river, ___ were quite luxurious. A. which many B. many of themC. many of which D. many that Question 16: Let’s do something to protect the environment, ___we? A. needn’t B. must C. shall D. will
8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 17: Peter: “Let me drive you home” John: “___” A. No problem! B. It’s me. C. No, don’t worry. I’m alright. D. No, I usually drive home at five. Question 18: –“Would you like another coffee?” – “___”. A. Willingly B. Very kind of your partC. I’d love one D. It’s a pleasure
9. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied. A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed Question 20: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play. A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
10. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 21: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus. A. excess B. large quantity C. small quantity D. sufficiency Question 22: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment. A. attraction B. consideration C. ease D. speculation
11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 23: (A) All of the cities (B)in Texas, San Antonio (C)is probably the (D)most picturesque. Question 24: A galaxy, (A)where may include billions (B)of stars, (C) is held (D) together by gravitation attraction. Question 25: The tongue is the (A) principle organ (B) of taste, and (C) is crucial for chewing, (D) swallowed, and speaking.
12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived. A. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem. B. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem. C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem. D. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive.
13. Question 27: Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest. A. If you refuse to be arrested, you have to give a breath sample. B. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police. C. If a breath sample is not given, the police will refuse to arrest you. D. The police could cause you to give a breath sample to decide whether to arrest you or not
14. Question 28: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems. A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems. B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems. C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems. D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
15. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: Toan will buy a tank. Then he can raise some fish. A. Once Toan bought a tank, he can raise some fish. B. Once Toan buys a tank, he can raise some fish. C. Once Toan has bought a tank, he can raise some fish. D. Once Toan had bought a tank, he can raise some fish. Question 30: My friend teaches at a university. He is a lecturer. A. My friend, a lecturer, teaches at a university. B. My friend, who is a lecturer, teaches at a university. C. My friend, a lecturer, taught at a university. D. Both A and B.
16. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Marathon was the site of one of the most important (31)___ in the history of Western civilization. There, in 490 B.C., a Greek army defeated an invading army of Persians and saved Greece from becoming part of the Persian Empire. Marathon is a coastal plain about 25 miles northeast of Athens, Greece. Beginning in 400 B.C., Greek living under Persian rule in Asia, Minor (now Turkey), rose up against King Darius I of Persia. The Athenians sent solders and 20 ships to aid the rebels. Then the Greeks forces attacked and burned Sardis, a city that served as Darius’s capital in Asia Minor. Darius vowed that he would take (32)___ on the Athenians by conquering and burning Athens.
17. In 490 B.C., Darius sent one of his general, with an army and a fleet of about 200 ships to conquer Athens. The Persians first destroyed the city Eretria, and then sailed for Marathon. The Athenian general Miltiades positioned the Athenian troops on the island edge of the plain. The Persian occupied the seaward (33)___. A few days later, the Persian leaders, hoping that civil war had broken out in Athens, loaded part of the forces on ships. The Persian on the ships prepared to sail to Athens and attack the city. Seeing their (34)___ for a victory, the Athenians attacked the army of Persians that remained on the plain. The Greeks surrounded and thoroughly defeated the Persians at marathon. According to tradition, Miltiades sent the runner Pheidippides from Marathon to Athens with news of the Athenians victory. Pheidippides (35)___ the 25 miles to Athens at top speed, delivered his message, and fell to the ground, dead. Today, the word marathon refers to a foot race of 26 miles 385 yards (42.2 kilometers) or of similar length.
18. Question 31. A. fields B. aspects C. battles D. events Question 32. A. grudges B. hatred C. revenge D. curses Question 33. A. edge B. rim C. brim D. side Question 34. A. possibility B. chance C. signs D. prospects Question 35. A. dashed B. sprinted C. galloped D. raced
19. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such resources are solar power and geothermal power. Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
20. Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources. And as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use is in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where over 80 percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale.
21. Question 36. What is the main topic of this passage ? A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources. B. How energy resources are tapped from nature. C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized. D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
22. Question 37. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources ? A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available. B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth. C. Because they are free and available worldwide. D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
23. Question 38. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles? A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries. B. They are more expensive than solar panels. C. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity. D. They contain photovoltaic cells. Question 39. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production ? A. They both require the use of a generator. B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface. C. They both require fairly simple technology. D. They are both conventional and costly.
24. Question 40. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage ? A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use. B. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use. C. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources. D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
25. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Fukushima I nuclear accidents are a series of ongoing equipment failures and releases of radioactive materials at the Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant, following the 9.0 magnitude Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami on 11 March 2011. The plant comprises six separate boiling water reactors maintained by the Tokyo Electric Power Company (TEPCO). This accident is the largest of the 2011 Japanese nuclear accidents arising from the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami, and experts consider it to be the second largest nuclear accident after the Chernobyl disaster, but more complex as all reactors are involved.
26. At the time of the quake, reactor 4 had been de-fueled while 5 and 6 were in cold shutdown for planned maintenance. The remaining reactors shut down automatically after the earthquake, with emergency generators starting up to run the control electronics and water pumps needed to cool reactors. The plant was protected by a seawall designed to withstand a 5.7 metres (19 ft) tsunami but not the 14-metre (46 ft) maximum wave which arrived 41–60 minutes after the earthquake. The entire plant was flooded, including low-lying generators and electrical switchgear in reactor basements and external pumps for supplying cooling seawater. The connection to the electrical grid was broken. All power for cooling was lost and reactors started to overheat, due to natural decay of the fission products created before shutdown. The flooding and earthquake damage hindered external assistance.
27. Evidence soon arose of partial core meltdown in reactors 1, 2, and 3; hydrogen explosions destroyed the upper cladding of the buildings housing reactors 1, 3, and 4; an explosion damaged the containment inside reactor 2; multiple fires broke out at reactor 4. Despite being initially shutdown, reactors 5 and 6 began to overheat. Fuel rods stored in pools in each reactor building began to overheat as water levels in the pools dropped. Fears of radiation leaks led to a 20- kilometre (12 mi) radius evacuation around the plant while workers suffered radiation exposure and were temporarily evacuated at various times. One generator at unit 6 was restarted on 17 March allowing some cooling at units 5 and 6 which were least damaged. Grid power was restored to parts of the plant on 20 March, but machinery for reactors 1 through 4, damaged by floods, fires and explosions, remained inoperable. Flooding with radioactive water through the basements of units 1–4 continues to prevent access to carry out repairs.
28. Measurements taken by the Japanese science ministry and education ministry in areas of northern Japan 30– 50 km from the plant showed radioactive caesium levels high enough to cause concern. Food grown in the area was banned from sale. It was suggested that worldwide measurements of iodine-131 and caesium- 137 indicate that the releases from Fukushima are of the same order of magnitude as the releases of those isotopes from the Chernobyl disaster in 1986; Tokyo officials temporarily recommended that tap water should not be used to prepare food for infants. Plutonium contamination has been detected in the soil at two sites in the plant. Two workers hospitalized as a precaution on 25 March had been exposed to between 2000 and 6000 mSv of radiation at their ankles when standing in water in unit 3.
29. Question 41. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Japanese natural disaster – the nuclear power accident. B. Fukushima I nuclear accident – the largest nuclear power of all time. C. The nuclear power accident – Japanese catastrophe. D. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant. Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that___. A. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant is the world’s largest nuclear accident B. The accident happened in the early part of the year 2011 C. Chernobyl is the world’s largest and most complex nuclear accident D. Reactor doesn’t involve in the accident
30. Question 43. The word “ongoing” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ___. A. old-fashioned B. onslaught C. continuous D. disastrous Question 44. The word “withstand” in the second paragraph is could be best replaced by___. A. stand B. stand together C. wrestle D. strike Question 45. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT___. A. The cause of the accident is the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami B. The earthquake causes a great damage to Japan and the neighboring country C. The tsunami struck the country after the earthquake had occurred approximately an hour D. The reactor was barred from external assistance because of the flooding and earthquake damage
31. Question 46. According to the passage, which of the followings is NOT true? A. The plant suffered a 14-metre seawall B. The highest wave was 46 ft in height C. The reactor 5 and 6 started overheating though they were in cold shutdown for maintenance D. The flood with water containing radioactivity made it impossible for the machinery to be repaired Question 47. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred? A. The Chernobyl disaster happened in the late 19th century B. Food was banned from sale for fear that the country would run out of food C. The people in Tokyo were advised not to use tap water to cook for children D. Two workers were sent to hospital as they were exposed to radiation when standing in water in unit 3
32. Question 48. The word “inoperable” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by___. A. incompatible B. impracticable C. irrepressible D. mysterious Question 49. When the earthquake occurred, how many plants were inactive? A. 3 B. 4, 5, 6 C. 5, 6 D. 5 Question 50. Why does the author mention “plutonium contamination” in the last paragraph? A. to show that the Japanese discovered plutonium mine after the nuclear accident B. to show that plutonium was contaminated after the nuclear accident C. to show that the soil was polluted by plutonium D. to give an example of soil containing natural resource
33. Good luck!